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Exam : Exam Express EE0-511
Title : Exam Express(r) F5 big-ip v9 Local Traffic Management

1. Which two statements are true concerning differences between BIG-IP platforms? (Choose two.)
A.The 1500 hosts more ports than the 3400.
B.All F5 switch ports are tri-speed; 10, 100 or 1000 Mbps.
C.All BIG-IP platforms use both an ASIC and CPU(s) to process traffic.
D.The 1500 and 3400 are in a 1U chassis while the 6400 is in a 2U chassis.
E.The 1500, 3400 and 6400 have greater SSL capabilities after the initial SSL handshake than the 1000, 2400, and 5100.
Answer: DE

2. The current status of a given pool is offline (red). Which condition could explain that state? Assume the descriptions below include all monitors assigned for each scenario.
A.Neither the pool nor it’s members or nodes has any monitor assigned.
B.The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and all of the pool’s members have failed the monitor’s test.
C.The pool has a monitor assigned to it, and some of the pool’s members have failed the monitor’s test.
D.A system-wide monitor has tested all nodes successfully, but the pool’s members have no specific monitor assigned to them.
Answer: B

3. Which two profile types would be required with a virtual server so that cookie persistence is enabled? (Choose two.)
A.TCP
B.UDP
C.HTTP
D.WWW
E.source address persistence
Answer: AC

4. A site has six members in a pool. Three of the servers are new and have more memory and a faster processor than the others. Assuming all other factors are equal and traffic should be sent to all members, which two load-balancing methods are appropriate? (Choose two.)
A.Priority
B.Observed
C.Round Robin
D.Ratio Member
Answer: BD

5. Which statement is true regarding fail-over?
A.Hardware fail-over is disabled by default.
B.Hardware fail-over can be used in conjunction with network failover.
C.If the hardware fail-over cable is disconnected, both BIG-IP devices will always assume the active role.
D.By default, hardware fail-over detects voltage across the fail-over cable and monitors traffic across the internal VLAN.
Answer: B

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-600
Title : Exam Express(r) MRO MAXIMO 5.2 Certified Consultant Exam

1. What are two valid reasons for creating a cloned application in MAXIMO? (Choose two.)
A.to access data from multiple MAXIMO databases
B.to restrict data access for a specific group of users
C.to allow various screen configurations for presenting the same data
D.to capture custom data not related to any existing MAXIMO application
Answer: BC

2. Which three types of records can be assigned a Failure Class? (Choose three.)
A.Stock Item
B.Equipment
C.Work Order
D.Operating Location
Answer: BCD

3. Which two statements are true about setting up and working with Master PM? (Choose two.)
A.The Master PM can override an Associated PM’s Job Plan Sequence.
B.Checking the Override Master PM Updates? check box updates the associated PM’s values with the Master PM values.
C.Start Date, Seasonal Date, and Extended date are the only date fields that Master PMs can update on Associated PMs.
D.Last Target Start Date, Last Completion Date, Meter 1 Estimated Next Due Date, and Meter 2 Estimated Next Due Date are the only fields that Master PMs can update on Associated PMs.
Answer: AC

4. The Work Order Failure Class field gets populated automatically from which two applications? (Choose two.)
A.PM
B.Labor
C.Job Plan
D.Locations
E.Equipment
Answer: DE

5. Against which kind of record can downtime be reported?
A.Location
B.Equipment
C.Condition Monitoring
D.Preventive Maintenance
Answer: B

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-02
Title : Atg commerce certification exam

1. Which two statements about the functions of the ShippingGroupFormHandler are true? (Choose two.)
A. It allows you to split shipping by line item.
B. It allows you to split shipping by payment group.
C. It contains a list of CommerceItemShippingInfo objects.
D. It loads the ShippingGroupMapContainer with the authorized shipping groups for the current user.
Answer: AC

2. What are two functions of the CartModifierFormHandler? (Choose two.)
A. reprices the Order
B. adds items to an Order
C. schedules the Order for future fulfillment
D. retrieves the list of payment groups associated with the Order
Answer: AB

3. What should you do to prevent errors during submission in the checkout caused by session invalidation?
A. You set the sessionExpirationURL property of the form handler to redirect the user to an appropriate page after submission.
B. You ensure that the Profile.securityStatus is not anonymous before rendering the form and if it is anonymous, redirect the user to an
appropriate page.
C. You create a servlet that will check the SessionManager.validSessions property and ensure this session is valid when the form is
displayed. If session is invalid, you redirect the user to an appropriate page.
D. You check the creationTime of the user’s session and ensure that the difference subtracted from current time is not greater than the
SessionManager.sessionInvalidationTime on the page. If it is longer than the sessionInvalidationTime, you redirect the user to an
appropriate page.
Answer: A

4. What are two ways to display items in an order in a JSP? (Choose two.)
A. iterate through the CartModifierFormHandler.productIds property
B. iterate through the CartModifierFormHandler.order.commerceItems property
C. iterate through the CartModifierFormHandler.order.ShippingGroups property and then iterate through the
ShippingGroup.CommerceItems property
D. iterate through the CartModifierFormHandler.order.ShippingGroups property and then iterate through the
ShippingGroup.CommerceItemRelationships property
Answer: BD

5. Which two steps are necessary to add a new shipping method? (Choose two.)
A. create a component of type atg.commerce.pricing.ShippingMethod
B. create a component of type atg.commerce.pricing.FixedPriceShippingCalculator
C. add the new shipping method component to the ShippingPricingEngine component’s preCalculator property
D. add the new shipping method component to the ShippingPricingEngine component’s shippingMethod property
Answer: BC

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-426
Title : Packeteer Certified Specialist

1. What type of control features can be configured for folders?
A. Policies
B. Partitions
C. Policy Inheritance
D. Traffic Discovery within Class
Answer: B

2. What can a policy be applied to?
A. folder classes
B. class with children
C. class with no children
D. any class on the class tree
Answer: C

3. What criteria can be specified in a matching rule? (Choose THREE)
A. SSL URL
B. Set shaping Off
C. Diffserv marking
D. Set discovery On
E. VLAN identification
F. Application-specific criteria
Answer: CEF

4. What is the purpose of configuring direct standby?
A. to configure PacketShapers in one-armed mode
B. to monitor a connected router’s WAN interface(s)
C. to configure PacketShapers in a redundant topology
D. to configure PacketShapers to participate in routing decisions
Answer: C

5. What best defines the functionality of Link State Mirroring?
A. PacketShaper will bring down the second port of a NIC pair if the first goes down.
B. PacketShaper mirrors data from an active interface set to a selected port to allow an external analyzer to be connected to take a packet trace.
C. PacketShaper duplicates data from an active interface and sends out the mirror port to the partner PacketShaper configured as the hot standby partner.
D. PacketShaper duplicates data from an active interface and sends out the mirror port to the partner PacketShaper configured as the direct standby partner.
Answer: A

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-501
Title : F5 Big-Ip V4 Exam

1. When administrative users are created, which three access levels can they be granted through the BIG-IP Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)
A. CLI
B. Web Read Only
C. CLI + Web Read Only
D. CLI + Full Web Read / Write
E. CLI + Partial Web Read / Write
Answer: ABD

2. Which three methods are available for authentication of administrative users logging on to BIG-IP’s web-based Configuration Utility? (Choose three.)
A. Local LDAP database
B. Local Radius database
C. Remote LDAP database
D. Remote Radius database
E. Local master.passwd database
Answer: ACD

3. Which IP address does the BIG-IP assign itself by default at startup, before the BIG-IP has been configured
A. 10.10.1.245 or 192.168.245.245
B. 192.168.1.127 or 192.168.1.245
C. 192.168.245.245 or 192.168.1.245
D. 172.16.1.245 or 172.16.245.245
Answer: C

4. You are using the Setup Utility. Which two statements about the DNS Proxy section are true? (Choose two.)
A. If the option is chosen, the IP address of a DNS server is entered here.
B. If the option is chosen, it allows the BIG-IP System to resolve host names for nodes.
C. If the option is chosen, the hostname of an available DNS server must be entered here.
D. If the option is chosen, the IP address of a DNS server on the same subnet must be entered here.
Answer: AB

5. Which of the following parameters can be specified with the Setup Utility? (Choose three.)
A. current time
B. password of the "root" user
C. IP address of an initial Virtual Server
D. IP address restrictions for access to the Configuration Utility
E. self IP addresses
Answer: BDE

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-071
Title : Actuate Certified Professionla Developer-release 7 Exam

1. Create a new connection class for a database utilizing the AcConnection class. Keep all of the functionality of the ancestor classes. The new class calls to an ancestor class that helps establish this database connection. Based on this scenario, answer the following questions. I could make a call to the AcReportComponent for this function. True False
4. Which data access class should be used when customizing a report to access a csv file?
A. AcQuerySource
B. AcDataAdapter
C. AcDataSource
D. AcDataBaseSource
Answer: C

2. Create a new connection class for a database utilizing the AcConnection class. Keep all of the functionality of the ancestor classes. The new class calls to an ancestor class that helps establish this database connection. Based on this scenario, answer the following questions. I could make a call to the AcDBControl for this function. True False
2. When working with sequential section subreports; you must overwrite what two methods on the Report Section of a subreport to retrieve the data stream from the preceding subreport?
A. StartDataStream( )
B. GetDataStream( )
C. GetConnection( )
D. FinishDataStream( )
E. OpenDataStream( )
Answer: AB

3. When working with sequential section subreports; you must overwrite what two methods on the Report Section of a subreport to retrieve the data stream from the preceding subreport?
A. StartDataStream( )
B. GetDataStream( )
C. GetConnection( )
D. FinishDataStream( )
E. OpenDataStream( )
Answer: AB

4. Which data access class should be used when customizing a report to access a csv file?
A. AcQuerySource
B. AcDataAdapter
C. AcDataSource
D. AcDataBaseSource
Answer: C

5. After merging data from multiple data sources, overwrite the _________________ method to define the values to be used to sort the data rows.
A. Fetch( )
B. OrderBy
C. Compare( )
D. Sorting
Answer: C

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-411
Title : VoiceXML Application Developer Exam

1. Which grammar rule recognizes these phrases?
Isaac Levi
Isaac the kid Levi
Isaac my friend Levi
Isaac Delbert Levi
Mao Yonghang
Mao the kid Yonghang
Mao my friend Yonghang
Mao Delbert Yonghang
A. picture
6. Which VoiceXML element can be used to transfer execution from one VoiceXML document to the other and return to the first VoiceXML document after the execution of the second VoiceXML document is completed?
A. <call>
B. <goto>
C. <submit>
D. <subdialog>
E. <function>
Answer: D

2. Which SSML element allows you to specify the speed with which rendered output is played?
A. the<prompt> element, using the rate attribute
B. the <prosody>element, using the rate attribute
C. the <say-as> element, using the duration attribute
D. the<emphasis> element, using the duration attribute
Answer: B

3. Which two code fragments write " rose " to a log? (Choose two.)
A. <log>rose</log>
B. <log name="rose">rose</log>
C. <var name="var1" expr="’rose’"/> <log><value expr="rose"/></log>
D. <var name="var1" expr="’rose’"/> <log><value expr="var1"/></log>
Answer: AD

4. Given the following VoiceXML code:
The objective of this code is to ask callers to enter their PIN. Which line must be changed for this code to achieve its objective?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 11
D. 15
Answer: B

5. The _____ attribute is used to identify the root document of a VoiceXML application.
A. root
B. main
C. parent
D. application
Answer: D

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-515
Title : FirePass v6

1. A backup or restore of the FirePass configuration can be accomplished in which way?
A. A backup file is automatically saved to the FirePass hard-drive each night by default.
B. A backup file may be saved to a local PC using the web configuration Admin console.
C. A backup file may be saved to the local PC using the command line "maintenance" script.
D. A backup file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the web configuration Admin console.
E. A backup file may be saved to the FirePass hard-drive using the command line "maintenance" script.
Answer: B

2. Which statement is FALSE about an EndPoint security Protected Configuration?
A. All resources are protected by at least one pre-logon check
B. Different resources can be protected by different pre-logon checks
C. Resources can be required to pass more than one pre-logon check
D. Within one pre-logon sequence some checks can be used to protect resources and other checks can restrict access to the logon screen
Answer: A

3. Based on the pre-logon sequence in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. If the file c:logon.txt exists, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be presented with a logon screen.
B. If the file c:logon.txt exists, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be logged into the FirePass controller.
C. If the file c:logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is running, the client will be presented with a logon screen.
D. If the file c:logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be presented with a logon screen.
E. If the file c:logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is running, the client will be logged into the FirePass controller.
F. If the file c:logon.txt does not exist, and the process calc.exe is not running, the client will be logged into the FirePass controller.
Answer: A C

4. If a working Active / Standby pair of FirePass Controllers has been configured correctly for Failover, which observation by itself would allow the Admin to tell which FirePass box is is the Active member of the pair?
A. https://<FirePass virtual IP Address>/admin/ / Welcome screen says "In Failover Active Mode".
B. https://<FirePass physical IP Address>/admin/ / Welcome screen says "In Failover Active Mode".
C. https://<FirePass virtual IP Address>/admin/ / Current Settings screen option Current Failover Status set to "Active".
D. https://<FirePass physical IP Address>/admin/ / Current Settings screen option Current Failover Status set to "Active".
Answer: B

5. Which statement is true regarding Portal Access: Access Control Lists?
A. ACL’s can be applied to the Master Group and Favorites.
B. ACL’s can prevent favorites from being viewable from the Webtop.
C. ACL’s require that an Active X component be downloaded and installed automatically when the user clicks on a favorite.
D. Un-checking "show administrator defined favorites only" on the Master Group settings page will allow the user to browse to any URL regardless of the configured ACL’s.
Answer: A

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Exam : Exam Express EE0-503
Title : F5 3-DNS V4 Exam

1. What might happen if the big3d agent becomes overloaded due to a large number of local DNSs making resolution requests?
A. The TTL setting for the Wide-IP increases.
B. Some probe statistics may fail to be updated.
C. Address responses to local DNSs are delayed until the big3d agent recovers.
D. The 3-DNS System will not respond to DNS queries until the big3d agent recovers.
Answer: B

2. A Wide-IP has two pools. The first has a set of five Virtual Servers. The second pool redirects requests to a Content Delivery Network (CDN). How can limits and thresholds be used to manage traffic for this Wide-IP? (Choose two.)
A. If requests exceed the first pool’s threshold, additional requests can be sent to the CDN.
B. If requests exceed the second pool’s threshold, additional requests can be sent to the Virtual Servers in the first pool.
C. If requests exceed the Wide-IP’s threshold, additional requests can be ignored to prevent overloading the Virtual Servers.
D. If requests exceed the second pool’s threshold, additional requests can be load balanced between the Virtual Servers and the CDN.
Answer: AB

3. What is the difference between primary and secondary DNS servers?
A. Only primary servers can issue authoritative responses.
B. Primary servers host the original copy of the zone database file.
C. Primary servers resolve names more efficiently than secondary servers.
D. Secondary servers act as back-ups and will respond only if the primary fails.
Answer: B

4. A 3-DNS System performs a name resolution that is not a Wide-IP. The name is in a domain for which the 3-DNS System is authoritative. Where does the information come from?
A. 3-DNS System cannot resolve a host name that is not a Wide-IP.
B. It comes from BIND database (zone) files on the 3-DNS System.
C. It comes from the database of previously cached name resolutions.
D. It comes from a zone transfer initiated when the request was received.
Answer: B

5. A specific ECV can be used to test _____.
A. a Virtual Server within a pool
B. all Virtual Servers in a single pool
C. all Virtual Servers in all pools in a Wide-IP
D. all Virtual Servers in all pools of a group of Wide-IPs
Answer: C

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